Today, we are going to solve Optiver’s challenges from their new Prove It series which I have really enjoyed. I will just be providing the mathematical proofs, but if you are interested to see what these formulas and equations mean, please see this video for reference (problems are near the end): https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fmtscKsfMTg
Prove that
![Rendered by QuickLaTeX.com \[\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{2^{2n}}\sum_{i=0}^{n} \binom{n}{i}^2 =0.\]](https://realtrungnguyen.com/wp-content/ql-cache/quicklatex.com-d18ec8f1d03ecc67a8e3a698f1b0b6af_l3.png)
We are going to first invoke
which states
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![Rendered by QuickLaTeX.com \[\sum_{i=0}^{n} \binom{n}{i}^2=\binom{2n}{n}.\]](https://realtrungnguyen.com/wp-content/ql-cache/quicklatex.com-3d87bde66df32c54159f003d992470a2_l3.png)
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Note that
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For large values of
, we can use Stirling’s approximation:
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Applying this to the factorials in the expression for
, we have
![Rendered by QuickLaTeX.com \[\binom{2n}{n} \approx \frac{\sqrt{4\pi n} \left(\frac{2n}{e}\right)^{2n}}{(2\pi n) \left(\frac{n}{e}\right)^{2n}} = \frac{4^n \sqrt{4\pi n}}{2\pi n} = \frac{4^n}{\sqrt{\pi n}}.\]](https://realtrungnguyen.com/wp-content/ql-cache/quicklatex.com-ebad0d4ae86403d5e267e619d028a896_l3.png)
Hence,
![Rendered by QuickLaTeX.com \[\frac{\binom{2n}{n}}{2^{2n}} \approx \frac{\frac{4^n}{\sqrt{\pi n}}}{4^n} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi n}}.\]](https://realtrungnguyen.com/wp-content/ql-cache/quicklatex.com-9d66712dcb37f54f7d115923364d48de_l3.png)
We just need to check
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which is trivial. Thus, we have shown that:
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Prove that
![Rendered by QuickLaTeX.com \[\frac{1}{2^{2n}}\sum_{i=0}^{n} \binom{n}{i}^2 >\frac{1}{n}\]](https://realtrungnguyen.com/wp-content/ql-cache/quicklatex.com-b69761dbf2300b234da1fe9cbb7bb6ea_l3.png)
As in the first exercise, we can eliminate the summation using combinatorial identities. So it remains to show that
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The base case of
holds as
, so now assume the inequality holds for
. That is, assume
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We will start by rewriting the expression for
in terms of
. Observe
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Hence,
![Rendered by QuickLaTeX.com \[\frac{1}{2^{2(k+1)}}\binom{2\cdot (k+1)}{k+1} = \frac{\frac{2(2k+1)}{k+1} \binom{2k}{k}}{2^{2} \cdot 2^{2k}} = \frac{2(2k+1)}{4(k+1)} \cdot \frac{\binom{2k}{k}}{2^{2k}} = \frac{(2k+1)}{2(k+1)} \cdot \frac{\binom{2k}{k}}{2^{2k}}.\]](https://realtrungnguyen.com/wp-content/ql-cache/quicklatex.com-ad8edd98c59fcf4978474f50c1ad8aa5_l3.png)
By the inductive hypothesis,
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so
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But note we must have
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because we always have
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Thus
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We have successfully shown
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Find an interesting solution? Feel free to submit it to Optiver directly at https://optiver.com/prove-it-1

